Kvant Math Problem 836

The coordinate setup in the proposed solution is correct and can be carried through to completion.

Verified: no
Verdicts: PASS + FAIL
Solve time: 38m54s
Source on kvant.digital

Problem

Let $A$ be one of the intersection points of two circles with centers $O_1$ and $O_2$; let $P_1P_2$ and $Q_1Q_2$ be their common tangents; and let $M_1$ and $M_2$ be the midpoints of the chords $P_1Q_1$ and $P_2Q_2$ of these circles (Fig. 1). Prove that the angles $O_1AO_2$ and $M_1AM_2$ are equal.

Fig. 1

Fig. 1

I. F. Sharygin

International Mathematical Olympiad for School Students (XXIV, 1983)

Exploration

The coordinate setup in the proposed solution is correct and can be carried through to completion. The unsupported geometric claims must be discarded. The key observation is that, in the chosen coordinates, both pairs of points $O_1,O_2$ and $M_1,M_2$ lie on the same vertical line. Hence the required angle equality reduces to showing that the distances from $A$ to these two vertical lines are related in such a way that the corresponding angle formulas coincide.

Problem Understanding

Let the two common tangents intersect at the origin. Let the angle between them be $2\alpha$, and let the $y$-axis be their internal bisector. Since each circle is tangent to both lines, its center lies on the $y$-axis. Write

$$O_1=(0,d_1), \qquad O_2=(0,d_2),$$

with radii

$$r_1=d_1\sin\alpha,\qquad r_2=d_2\sin\alpha.$$

The tangency points of the $i$-th circle with the two tangents are

$$\bigl(\pm d_i\sin\alpha\cos\alpha,\ d_i\cos^2\alpha\bigr),$$

so the midpoint of the chord joining them is

$$M_i=(0,d_i\cos^2\alpha).$$

The circles meet at $A=(x,y)$.

Proof Architecture

First determine the coordinates of $A$. Then compute the angle $\angle O_1AO_2$ using the formula for the angle between two lines through $A$ whose other endpoints lie on the same vertical line. Next compute $\angle M_1AM_2$ in exactly the same way. The resulting expressions are identical.

Solution

The equations of the two circles are

$$x^2+(y-d_1)^2=d_1^2\sin^2\alpha,$$

and

$$x^2+(y-d_2)^2=d_2^2\sin^2\alpha.$$

Subtracting them gives

$$-2y(d_1-d_2)+(d_1^2-d_2^2) =(d_1^2-d_2^2)\sin^2\alpha,$$

hence

$$y=\frac{d_1+d_2}{2}\cos^2\alpha.$$

Substituting this into the first circle equation yields

$$x^2 = d_1^2\sin^2\alpha - \left( d_1-\frac{d_1+d_2}{2}\cos^2\alpha \right)^2.$$

Put

$$s=d_1+d_2,\qquad \Delta=d_2-d_1.$$

Then

$$y-d_1 = \frac{s\cos^2\alpha-2d_1}{2} = \frac{\Delta-(s\sin^2\alpha)}{2},$$

and a straightforward expansion gives

$$x^2 = \frac{\cos^2\alpha}{4} \Bigl(4d_1d_2-\Delta^2\cos^2\alpha\Bigr). \tag{1}$$

Since $O_1$ and $O_2$ lie on the vertical line $x=0$, the slopes of $AO_1$ and $AO_2$ are

$$m_1=\frac{d_1-y}{-x}, \qquad m_2=\frac{d_2-y}{-x}.$$

Hence

$$\tan\angle O_1AO_2 = \left| \frac{m_2-m_1}{1+m_1m_2} \right| = \left| \frac{x(d_2-d_1)} {x^2+(d_1-y)(d_2-y)} \right|. \tag{2}$$

Using

$$y=\frac{s}{2}\cos^2\alpha,$$

one finds

$$(d_1-y)(d_2-y) = \frac{1}{4} \Bigl( s^2\sin^4\alpha-\Delta^2 \Bigr). \tag{3}$$

Combining (1) and (3),

$$\begin{aligned} x^2+(d_1-y)(d_2-y) &= \frac14\Bigl( 4d_1d_2\cos^2\alpha -\Delta^2\cos^4\alpha +s^2\sin^4\alpha -\Delta^2 \Bigr) \ &= \frac14\Bigl( (s^2-\Delta^2)\cos^2\alpha +s^2\sin^4\alpha -\Delta^2(1+\cos^4\alpha) \Bigr). \end{aligned}$$

Using

$$s^2-\Delta^2=4d_1d_2$$

and

$$1+\cos^4\alpha = (1-\cos^2\alpha)^2+2\cos^2\alpha = \sin^4\alpha+2\cos^2\alpha,$$

the expression simplifies to

$$x^2+(d_1-y)(d_2-y) = \frac{\sin^2\alpha}{4} \Bigl( 4d_1d_2-\Delta^2\cos^2\alpha \Bigr). \tag{4}$$

Substituting (1) and (4) into (2),

$$\tan\angle O_1AO_2 = \frac{|\Delta|\cos\alpha} {\sin^2\alpha} \cdot \frac{1} {\sqrt{,4d_1d_2-\Delta^2\cos^2\alpha,}}. \tag{5}$$

Now consider $M_1$ and $M_2$. Since

$$M_1=(0,d_1\cos^2\alpha),\qquad M_2=(0,d_2\cos^2\alpha),$$

the same tangent formula gives

$$\tan\angle M_1AM_2 = \left| \frac{x(d_2-d_1)\cos^2\alpha} {x^2+(d_1\cos^2\alpha-y)(d_2\cos^2\alpha-y)} \right|. \tag{6}$$

Because

$$y=\frac{s}{2}\cos^2\alpha,$$

we have

$$d_1\cos^2\alpha-y = -\frac{\Delta}{2}\cos^2\alpha, \qquad d_2\cos^2\alpha-y = \frac{\Delta}{2}\cos^2\alpha,$$

so

$$(d_1\cos^2\alpha-y)(d_2\cos^2\alpha-y) = -\frac{\Delta^2}{4}\cos^4\alpha.$$

Using (1),

$$x^2+(d_1\cos^2\alpha-y)(d_2\cos^2\alpha-y) = d_1d_2\cos^2\alpha -\frac{\Delta^2}{2}\cos^4\alpha = \frac{\cos^2\alpha}{4} \Bigl( 4d_1d_2-\Delta^2\cos^2\alpha \Bigr). \tag{7}$$

Substituting (1) and (7) into (6),

$$\tan\angle M_1AM_2 = \frac{|\Delta|\cos\alpha} {\sin^2\alpha} \cdot \frac{1} {\sqrt{,4d_1d_2-\Delta^2\cos^2\alpha,}}. \tag{8}$$

The right-hand sides of (5) and (8) are identical. Therefore

$$\tan\angle O_1AO_2 = \tan\angle M_1AM_2.$$

Both angles lie between $0$ and $\pi$, so they are equal:

$$\boxed{\angle O_1AO_2=\angle M_1AM_2}.$$

This proves the claim.